Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 CCNA Exam Questions and Answers – Page 3

The latest Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 CCNA certification actual real practice exam question and answer (Q&A) dumps are available free, which are helpful for you to pass the Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 CCNA exam and earn Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 CCNA certification.

Exam Question 241

A newly implemented IP-based video conferencing application is causing the network to slow down.
Which OSI layer needs to be addressed to resolve the problem?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
F. Layer 6
G. Layer 7

Correct Answer:
A. Layer 1
Answer Description:
You need to address Open System Interconnect (OSI) Layer 1, the Physical layer, to resolve the problem. IP-based video conferencing applications are bandwidth-intensive and may cause the network to slow down unless there is enough bandwidth to ensure proper network operation. To resolve bandwidth problems, you may need to switch to a higher capacity network backbone, which may require a change of cabling or media types, such as fiber optics. Cabling and network media types are defined at OSI Layer 1.
The seven layers of the OSI model are as follows, in descending order from Layer 7 to Layer 1:

• Application: Interacts directly with the application. It provides application services, such as e-mail and File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
• Presentation: Enables coding and conversion functions for application layer data. The Presentation layer converts data into a format that is acceptable by the application layer. The formatting and encryption of data is done at this layer.
• Session: Creates, manages, and terminates sessions between communicating nodes. The session layer handles the service requests and responses that take place between different hosts.
• Transport: Delivers data sequentially and without errors. This layer manages data transmission between devices, a process known as flow control. The Transport layer protocols are Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
• Network: Defines the network address or the Internet Protocol (IP) address, which is then used by the routers to forward the packets.
• Data Link: Ensures the reliable delivery of data to the physical address of the destination.
• include fiber optic, wireless, and Ethernet.

Objective: Network Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Apply troubleshooting methodologies to resolve problems

Exam Question 242

Which of the following commands could you use to verify the type of serial cable you are connected to (DCE or DTE)?

A. show interfaces
B. show controllers
C. show ip interface
D. show interface dce
E. show interface switchport

Correct Answer:
B. show controllers
Answer Description:
The show controllers command provides hardware-related information used to troubleshoot and diagnose issues with Cisco router interfaces. The output of the command is as follows:
routerA# show controllers serial 0
HD unit 1, idb = 0x1C44E8, driver structure at 0x1CBAC8
buffer size 1524 HD unit 1
V.35 DTE cable, clock rate 64000
The preceding output indicates that a V.35 DTE cable is currently connected to interface Serial 0, and that a clock rate of 64000 bps has been detected from the DCE (the other side of the serial link). When the other end is a CSU/DSU, as is usually the case, the clock rate is provided by the CSU/DSU. The clocks stopped portion of the following output would indicate that a clock rate has not been detected from the DCE:
routerA# show controllers serial 0
HD unit 1, idb = 0x1C44E8, driver structure at 0x1CBAC8
buffer size 1524 HD unit 1
V.35 DTE cable, clocks stopped
This condition would be rectified by configuring a clock rate on the DCE router.
The show interfaces, show ip interface, and show interface switchport commands do not display any hardware-related information, such as connected cable types.
The show interface dce command is incorrect because this is not a valid Cisco IOS command.
Objective: WAN Technologies
Sub-Objective: Describe WAN access connectivity options

Exam Question 243

You are the network administrator for your company. You have been assigned the task of configuring an appropriate IP addressing scheme in the network.
Assuming that the network address is 192.16.100.0/28, what will be the number of hosts per network in this scenario?

A. 2
B. 6
C. 14
D. 30

Correct Answer:
C. 14
Answer Description:
In this scenario, there will be 14 hosts per network. The formula for calculating the number of hosts on a subnet is 2ⁿ – 2, where n is the number of host bits in the summary mask. The n can be calculated by subtracting host bits from the total number of bits in a subnet mask (32). In this case, n would be 32 – 28 = 4. Therefore, the formula to calculate the number of bits in this scenario would be:
2^{(32 -28)} – 2 = 2⁴ – 2 = 14 hosts
You always subtract 2 from 2n because the all-zero-bit address is reserved for the network address (called the network ID) and the all-one-bit address is reserved for the broadcast address.
The 192.16.100.0/28 network address would not have 30 hosts per network. The 192.16.100.0/27 network address would actually yield 30 hosts per network. In this case, n would be 32 – 27 = 5, so the number of host bits in the subnet mask would be 32 – 2, which is equal to 30.
The 192.16.100.0/28 network address would not have 6 hosts per network. The 192.16.100.0/29 network address would yield 6 hosts per network. In this case, n would be 32 – 29 = 3, so the number of host bits in the subnet mask would be 8 – 2, which is equal to 6.
The 192.16.100.0/28 network address would not have 2 hosts per network. The 192.16.100.0/30 network address would yield 2 hosts per network. In this case, n would be 32 – 30 = 2, so the number of host bits in the subnet mask would be 4 – 2, which is equal to 2.
Objective: Network Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Configure, verify, and troubleshoot IPv4 addressing and subnetting

Exam Question 244

You manage the EIGRP subnet in your organization. You have enabled EIGRP for IPv6 on all the routers in the EIGRP AS 260 using the following commands on all the routers:

During verification, you discover that EIGRP for IPv6 is not running on the routers.
Which of the following should be done to fix the issue?

A. The ipv6 address command should be executed in interface configuration mode.
B. The ipv6 address command should be executed in router configuration mode.
C. The eigrp router-id command should be executed in interface configuration mode.
D. The eigrp router-id command should be executed in router configuration mode.

Correct Answer:
D. The eigrp router-id command should be executed in router configuration mode.
Answer Description:
The eigrp router-id command should be executed in router configuration mode to fix the issue. This command specifies a fixed router IPv4 address to the router. If this command is missing or incorrectly configured on the router, EIGRP for IPv6 will not run properly.
Another command that you should perform so that EIGRP for IPv6 runs on the routers is the no shutdown command. You should execute this command in interface configuration mode. The no shutdown command is necessary because all the interfaces with EIGRP for IPv6 enabled on them are in a shutdown state by default.
A sample configuration to implement EIGRP for IPv6 on a router is as follows:

The two options stating that the ipv6 address command should be executed on the routers are incorrect. EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured on router interfaces without explicitly specifying a global unicast IPv6 address. If you specify the ipv6 enable command, as in this scenario, then the IPv6 address command is not required.
The option stating that the eigrp router-id command should be executed in interface configuration mode is incorrect. This command should be executed in router configuration mode instead of interface or global configuration modes.
Objective: Routing Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Configure, verify, and troubleshoot EIGRP for IPv6 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub)

Exam Question 245

You have multiple departments sharing a common network. You are concerned about network traffic from one department reaching another department.
What would be a solution for isolating the departments? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Configure separate VLANs for each department.
B. Assign a unique VTP domain for each department.
C. Put each department in a separate collision domain.
D. Configure trunk links between departmental switches.
E. Configure separate subnets for each department

Correct Answer:
A. Configure separate VLANs for each department.
E. Configure separate subnets for each department
Answer Description:
You could either configure separate VLANs for each department or configure separate subnets for each department. Either approach has the effect of restricting each department’s traffic to its local subnet or VLAN, unless you configure and allow inter-VLAN routing.
VLANs logically divide a switched network into multiple independent broadcast domains. Broadcast traffic within one VLAN will never be sent to hosts in other VLANs. In this respect, VLANs operate exactly as subnets do. The only way for hosts in different VLANs to communicate is through a router or multilayer switch configured to perform inter-VLAN routing between the VLANs.
The VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to synchronize VLAN databases across multiple switches, and is not a method for isolating departmental traffic.
Collision domains cannot be used to isolate traffic between departments. Multiple departments cannot share a collision domain when using switches. Every port on a switch is a separate collision domain, which allows the switch to forward more than one frame at a time. This also reduces collisions, since each host is therefore in a separate collision domain. The switch processes data based only on MAC addresses, and has no knowledge of which host is in which IP subnet or department.
Trunk links are used to connect switches to other switches and to routers for the purpose of carrying traffic from multiple VLANs, and are not a method of isolating traffic between different departments.
Objective: LAN Switching Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs (normal/extended range) spanning multiple switches

Exam Question 246

Which feature is NOT provided by flow control?

A. buffering
B. windowing
C. full duplex transmission
D. source-quench messaging

Correct Answer:
C. full duplex transmission
Answer Description:
The full duplex mode of transmission is not provided by flow control. Full duplex transmission is an Ethernet concept where hosts are able to send and receive at the same time. There are no collisions in a full-duplex Ethernet network. A dedicated switch port is required for each node in a full-duplex Ethernet network. Both the host’s NIC and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode. When full duplex is implemented, no collisions will occur on the link between the switch and the device. That will be one error condition that can be removed from consideration when troubleshooting a full duplex link.
Flow control is a function that prevents network congestion. It does so by ensuring that the transmitting device does not flood the receiving device with data. The following statements are true regarding flow control:

• Controls the amount of data which the sender can send to the receiver.
• Uses buffering, transmitting source-quench messages, and windowing to handle network congestion.
• Determines the rate at which the data is transmitted between the sender and receiver.
• Types of flow control include windowing, buffering, and congestion avoidance.

Flow control generally operates at the Transport layer in the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for error-free and sequential delivery of data. This layer is used to manage data transmission between devices.
Buffering is a method by which network devices use to save temporary overflows of excess data into the memory. The data is stored in the memory until it is processed.
Source-quench messages are used by the devices that receive the data to avoid buffer overflow.
Windowing is a scheme in which an acknowledgement is required by the source device from the destination after the transmission of a fixed number of packets.
Objective: Network Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Compare and contrast OSI and TCP/IP models

Exam Question 247

Which device creates broadcast domains and enables communication across separate broadcast domains?

A. router
B. switch
C. hub
D. access points

Correct Answer:
A. router
Answer Description:
A router allows communication across separate broadcast domains. A broadcast domain is group of hosts and network devices in which a broadcast frame sent by one host can be received by all of the other hosts in the broadcast domain. A router determines the path to other destination networks, and forwards data packets to the next hop along this path. A router operates at Layer 3 of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) layered communication model and uses an Internet Protocol (IP) address hierarchy to identify and route data through source and destination devices.
A switch does not allow communication across separate broadcast domains. A switch creates collision domains and enables communications across different collision domains. A collision domain is a logical group of hosts and network devices where packets can potentially collide with one another, causing communications disruption. Switches forward broadcasts so they do not form a separate broadcast domain unless Virtual LANs (VLANs) are created.
A hub does not allow communication across separate broadcast domains. A hub transmits frames, which means that they neither form separate collision or broadcast domains nor allow communication across these domains. Hubs are multiport devices that allow consolidation of various LAN segments and amplify signals that pass through them. Hubs operate at OSI Layer 1.
An access point does not allow communication across separate broadcast domains. Access points (APs) are OSI Layer 2 wireless hubs that allow client hosts to connect to the backbone network wirelessly.
Objective: Network Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Describe the impact of infrastructure components in an enterprise network

Exam Question 248

Which of the following protocols is responsible for negotiating upper-layer protocols that will be carried across a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection?

A. LCP
B. NCP
C. LMI
D. ISDN

Correct Answer:
B. NCP
Answer Description:
Network Control Protocol (NCP) is responsible for negotiating upper-layer protocols that will be carried across the PPP connection. NCP defines how the two PPP peers negotiate with the network layer protocols, such as IP and IPX, which will be used across the PPP connection.
Link Control protocol (LCP) is not responsible for negotiating upper-layer protocols that will be carried across a PPP connection. Link Control protocol (LCP) has the primary responsibility of negotiating and maintaining the PPP connection. LCP, defined in Request for Comments (RFCs) 1548 and 1570, has the primary responsibility to establish, configure, authenticate, and test a PPP connection. LCP negotiates the following when setting up a PPP connection:

• Authentication method used (PAP or CHAP), if any
• Compression algorithm used (Stacker or Predictor), if any
• Callback phone number to use, if defined
• Multilink; other physical connections to use, if configured

Local Management Interface (LMI) is not responsible for negotiating upper-layer protocols that will be carried across the PPP connection. LMI is a characteristic of a frame relay connection. There are three types of LMIs supported by Cisco routers:

• Cisco
• ANSI Annex D
• Q933-A Annex A

LMI has nothing to do with PPP connections.
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a type of WAN connection and has nothing to do with PPP connections.
Objective: WAN Technologies
Sub-Objective: Configure and verify PPP and MLPPP on WAN interfaces using local authentication

Exam Question 249

How many collision and broadcast domains are in the network shown below?

A. 4 collision domains and 3 broadcast domains
B. 7 collision domains and 2 broadcast domains
C. 8 collision domains and 1 broadcast domain
D. 6 collision domains and 2 broadcast domains

Correct Answer:
B. 7 collision domains and 2 broadcast domains
Answer Description:
There are 7 collision domains and 2 broadcast domains. They are labeled as shown below. Each router interface makes a broadcast domain and each switch interface creates a collision domain. The hub interfaces do neither.

Objective: Routing Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Describe the routing concepts

Exam Question 250

What is the default Administrative Distance (AD) value for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 90
D. 20

Correct Answer:
B. 5
Answer Description:
The default Administrative Distance (AD) value for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route is 5. The following table shows the AD values for different protocols and their IP routes:

The option 1 is incorrect because this is the default AD value for static routes.
The option 90 is incorrect because this is the default AD value for internal EIGRP routes.
The option 20 is incorrect because this is the default AD value for external BGP routes.
Objective: Routing Fundamentals
Sub-Objective: Compare and contrast interior and exterior routing protocols