The latest Cisco CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) 350-401 certification actual real practice exam question and answer (Q&A) dumps are available free, which are helpful for you to pass the Cisco CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) 350-401 exam and earn Cisco CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) 350-401 certification.
Exam Question 181
You administer the network shown above. No VLANs are configured on any of the switches.
Which of the following switches is the root bridge for the network? (Select the best answer.)
A. SwitchA
B. SwitchB
C. SwitchC
D. SwitchD
E. SwitchE
Correct Answer:
E. SwitchE
Answer Description:
SwitchE is the root bridge for the network. The root bridge is the switch with the lowest bridge ID. The bridge ID is composed of a 2byte bridge priority and a 6byte Media Access Control (MAC) address. The bridge priority is considered first in the determination of the lowest bridge ID.
The bridge priority can be set by issuing the spanning-tree priorityvalue command, where value is a number from 0 through 65535? the default priority is 32768. SwitchC and SwitchE both have a priority of 0. When two or more switches have the lowest priority, the switch with the lowest MAC address becomes the root bridge. MAC addresses are written in hexadecimal format. With MAC addresses, numbers are lower than letters and the hexadecimal value A is lower than the hexadecimal value F. Because SwitchE has a lower MAC address than SwitchC, SwitchE is the root bridge.
SwitchA is not the root bridge for the network, because it has the highest priority value, not the lowest priority value. Although link speed is somewhat relevant in determining the root port for a switch, link speed is irrelevant in determining the root bridge.
SwitchB is not the root bridge for the network; like SwitchA, SwitchB also has the highest priority value, not the lowest priority value. SwitchB contains redundant links to SwitchD, but redundant links are irrelevant in determining the root bridge. To avoid a switching loop, at least one of the redundant links between SwitchB and SwitchD will be blocked.
SwitchC is not the root bridge for the network. If the bridge priority of SwitchE were higher than 0, SwitchC would be the root bridge because a priority of 0 is the lowest configurable priority value.
SwitchD is not the root bridge for the network. Although SwitchD has the lowest MAC address on the network, the bridge priority is considered first in the determination of the root bridge. If all of the switches on the network had the same bridge priority values, SwitchD would be the root bridge because it has the lowest MAC address.
Exam Question 182
You administer the EIGRP network shown above. RouterB is configured to send only a summary route to RouterE. RouterC is configured as a stub router.
The link between RouterA and RouterB fails.
Which of the following routers will send a query to RouterF? (Select the best answer.)
A. only RouterC
B. only RouterD
C. only RouterE
D. only RouterC and RouterD
E. only RouterD and RouterE
F. RouterC, RouterD, and RouterE
Correct Answer:
B. only RouterD
Answer Description:
Only RouterD will send a query to RouterF. Query packets are sent to find routes to a destination network. When a router loses the best route to a destination and does not have a feasible successor, it floods query packets to its neighbors. If a neighbor has a route to the destination network, it replies with the route.
However, if a neighbor does not have a route to the destination network, it queries its neighbors, those neighbors query their neighbors, and so on. This process continues until either a router replies with the route or there are no routers left to query. The network cannot converge until all the replies have been received, which can cause a router to become stuck in active (SIA).
Limiting Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) queries prevents queries from consuming bandwidth and processor resources and prevents routers from becoming SIA. You can display which routers have not yet replied to a query by issuing the show ip eigrp topology active command, as shown in the following output:
The eigrp stub command limits EIGRP queries by creating a stub router. Stub routers advertise only a specified set of routes and therefore typically need only a default route from a hub router. A hub router detects that a router is a stub router by examining the Type-Length-Value (TLV) field within EIGRP hello packets sent by the router. The hub router will specify in its neighbor table that the router is a stub router and will no longer send query packets to that stub router, thereby limiting how far EIGRP queries spread throughout a network. Because RouterC is configured as a stub router, RouterB will not send queries to RouterC, and RouterC will therefore not propagate those queries to RouterF. Although hub routers will not send queries to stub routers, stub routers can initiate queries of their own.
The ip summary address eigrp as number address mask command limits EIGRP queries by configuring route summarization. If a neighbor router has a summarized route but does not have the specific route to the destination network in the query, the neighbor router will reply that it does not have a route to the destination network and will not query its neighbors. Thus route summarization creates a query boundary that prevents queries from propagating throughout the network. In this scenario, RouterB is configured to send only a summary route to RouterE; therefore, RouterE will not send queries to RouterF. RouterD is not configured as a stub router, and RouterB is not sending RouterD a summarized route. Therefore, when RouterB sends a query to RouterD, RouterD will send a query to RouterF.
Exam Question 183
Which of the following seed metrics is assigned by default when OSPF routes are redistributed into EIGRP? (Select the best answer.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 20
D. infinity
E. the metric used by the OSPF route
Correct Answer:
D. infinity
Answer Description:
A default seed metric with the value of infinity is assigned to Open Shortest Path First(OSPF) routes that are redistributed into Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP). Routes with an infinite metric are ignored by EIGRP and are not entered into the routing table. There is no direct translation of the OSPF cost-based metric into an EIGRP-equivalent metric; the EIGRP metric is based on bandwidth, delay, reliability, and load. Because the OSPF metric cannot be automatically converted into a metric that EIGRPunderstands, EIGRP requires that the metric be defined for all redistributed routes before those routes are entered into the routing table. To assign a default metric for routes redistributed into EIGRP, you should issue the defaultmetric bandwidth delay reliability loading mtu command. To assign a metric to an individual route redistributed from OSPF into EIGRP, you should issue the redistribute ospfprocessidmetric bandwidth delay reliability loading mtu command.
A default seed metric of infinity is also assigned to routes that are redistributed into Routing Information Protocol (RIP). Like EIGRP, RIP requires that the metric be defined for all redistributed routes before those routes are entered into the routing table. RIP uses hop count as a metric. Valid hopcount values are from 1 through 15; a value of 16 is considered to be infinite. The hopcount metric increases by 1 for each router along the path. Cisco recommends that you set a low value for the hopcount metric for redistributed routes.
To assign a default metric for routes redistributed into RIP, you should issue the defaultmetric hopcount command. To assign a metric to an individual route redistributed into RIP, you should issue the redistribute protocolhopcount command. If no metric is assigned during redistribution and no default metric is configured for RIP, the routes are assigned an infinite metric and are ignored by RIP.
A default seed metric of 0 is assigned to routes that are redistributed into IntermediateSystemtoIntermediate System (ISIS). ISIS uses a cost metric assigned to each participating interface. ISIS prefers routes with the lowest cost. Routes redistributed into IS-IS are designated as Level 2 routes unless otherwise specified.
A default seed metric of 1 is assigned to Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) routes that are redistributed into OSPF. OSPF uses a cost metric based on the bandwidth of each participating interface and prefers internal routes with the lowest cost. By default, all routes redistributed into OSPF are designated as Type 2 external (E2) routes. E2 routes have a metric that remains constant throughout the routing domain. Alternatively, routes redistributed into OSPF can be designated as Type 1 external (E1) routes. With E1 routes, the internal cost of the route is added to the initial metric assigned during redistribution.
A default seed metric of 20 is assigned to routes that are redistributed into OSPF from an internal gateway protocol other than OSPF. When OSPF routes are redistributed from one OSPF routing process to another OSPF routing process, the metrics are preserved and no default seed metric is assigned. Metrics are also preserved when routes are redistributed from one Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) or EIGRP routing process into another IGRP or EIGRP routing process.
Exam Question 184
Which of the following mutual redistribution scenarios does not require you to configure manual redistribution? (Select the best answer.)
A. static routes and RIPv2
B. static routes and EIGRP
C. OSPF processes with different process IDs
D. IS-IS and OSPF processes with the same area number
E. IGRP and EIGRP processes with the same ASN
F. EIGRP processes with different ASNs
Correct Answer:
E. IGRP and EIGRP processes with the same ASN
Answer Description:
Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) processes and Enhanced IGRP (EIGRP) processes with the same autonomous system number (ASN) do not require manual redistribution. Mutual redistribution of IGRP and EIGRP routing processes occurs automatically if the processes share the same ASN; there is no additional configuration required to enable route redistribution between the IGRP and EIGRP processes.
However, you must manually configure route redistribution between IGRP and EIGRP processes with different ASNs.
Routing Information Protocol version 2 (RIPv2) automatically redistributes static routes that point to an interface on the router. However, RIP does not redistribute static routes that point to a nexthop IP address unless you issue the redistribute static command from RIP router configuration mode. RIPv2 assigns static routes a metric of 1 and redistributes them as though they were directly connected. Because there is only one routing protocol involved when static routes are redistributed into a RIPv2 routing domain, this is a one way redistribution of routing information.
EIGRP automatically redistributes static routes that point to an interface on the router. However, EIGRP does not redistribute static routes that point to a nexthop IP addressunless you issue the redistribute static command from EIGRP router configuration mode. The static route is redistributed as an external route. Because there is only one routing protocol involved when static routes are redistributed into an EIGRP routing domain, this is a oneway redistribution of routing information.
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) processes with different process IDs do not redistribute routes without manual configuration. Although it is possible to run multiple OSPF processes on a single router, it is not recommended, because suboptimal routing and routing loops may occur.
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) and OSPF processes with the same area number do not redistribute routes without manual configuration. ISIS and OSPF both assign a default metric to redistributed routes unless otherwise specified.
Exam Question 185
You are considering moving your company’s software development to a public cloudbased solution. Which of the following are least likely to increase? (Select 2 choices.)
A. availability
B. redundancy
C. security
D. mobility
E. control
F. scalability
Correct Answer:
C. security
E. control
Answer Description:
Of the choices provided, security and control are least likely to increase. With a public cloudbased solution, the service provider, not the customer, controls the cloud infrastructure and devices. Therefore, physical security of the data and hardware is no longer in the customer’s control. In addition, resources stored in the public cloud are typically accessed over the Internet. Care must be taken so that the data can be accessed securely.
Availability, redundancy, mobility, and scalability are all likely to increase by moving to a public cloudbased solution. Cloudbased resources are typically spread over several devices, sometimes even in multiple geographic areas, thereby ensuring availability. If one device or location becomes unavailable, other devices and locations can handle the workload. Data stored on cloudbased resources can be copied or moved to other devices or locations, thereby increasing redundancy and mobility. As usage increases, additional devices can be brought online, thereby providing scalability.
Exam Question 186
You issue the show runningconfig command on RouterA and receive the following partial output:
Ho much web traffic can RouterA send out the FastEthernet0/1 interface during periods of heavy voice and video traffic? (Select the best answer.)
A. 10 Mbps
B. 15 Mbps
C. 20 Mbps
D. 25 Mbps
E. 40 Mbps
Correct Answer:
A. 10 Mbps
Answer Description:
RouterA can send 10 Mbps of web traffic out the FastEthernet0/1 interface during periods of heavy voice and video traffic. To create a Quality of Service (QoS) policy, you must perform the following steps:
- Define one or more class maps by issuing the classmap name command.
- Define the traffic that matches the class map by issuing one or more match commands.
- Define one or more policy maps by issuing the policymap name command.
- Link the class maps to the policy maps by issuing the classname command.
- Define one or more actions that should be taken for that traffic class.
- Link the policy map to an interface by issuing the servicepolicy {input | output} name command.
Bandwidth guarantees are set in policymap class configuration mode. You can specify the bandwidth as a rate or as a percentage with the bandwidth and priority commands. The syntax of the priority command is priority {bandwidth | percentpercentage} [burst], where bandwidth is specified in Kbps and burst is specified in bytes. The prioritycommand creates a strictpriority queue where packets are dequeued before packets from other queues are dequeued. The strictpriority queue is given priority over all other traffic.
If no priority traffic is being sent, the other traffic classes can share the remainingbandwidth based on their configured values.
The bandwidth command specifies a guaranteed amount of bandwidth for a particular traffic class. The syntax of the bandwidth command is bandwidth {kbps | remaining percentpercentage | percentpercentage}, where kbps is the amount of bandwidth that is guaranteed to a particular traffic class.
In this scenario, Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic is given a guaranteed 20 percent of the interface’s bandwidth. Video traffic is given a guaranteed 40 percent of the interface’s bandwidth. Voice and video traffic can exceed these bandwidth percentages if any unused bandwidth remains.
The remaining 40 percent, or 40 Mbps, of the interface’s bandwidth can be used by other traffic. If traffic does not match any traffic class, it will become part of the classdefault class. In this scenario, web traffic belongs to the classdefault class. Therefore, web traffic can consume 25 percent of the remaining bandwidth. If no other traffic is being sent on the interface, web traffic can consume 25 percent of the interface’s bandwidth. However, when voice and video traffic are heavy, web traffic can consume 25 percent of the remaining 40 Mbps, which is equal to 10 Mbps.
Even less web traffic can be sent if File Transfer Protocol (FTP) traffic or other unclassifiedtraffic is heavy. FTP traffic can consume 50 percent of the remaining bandwidth on the interface. If no other traffic is being sent on the interface, FTP traffic can consume 50 percent of the interface’s bandwidth. During periods of heavy voice and video usage, FTP traffic can consume 50 percent of the remaining 40 Mbps, which is equal to 20 Mbps.
Exam Question 187
On which of the following interfaces can a port ACL be applied? (Select 3 choices.)
A. an SVI
B. a trunk port
C. an EtherChannel interface
D. a routed port
E. a Layer 2 port
Correct Answer:
B. a trunk port
C. an EtherChannel interface
E. a Layer 2 port
Answer Description:
A port access control list (PACL) can be applied to a trunk port, a Layer 2 port, or an EtherChannel interface. PACLs filter inbound Layer 2 traffic on a switch port interface; PACLs cannot filter outbound traffic. When PACLs are applied on a switch, packets are filtered based on several criteria, including IP addresses, port numbers, or upperlayer protocol information. If a PACL is applied to a trunk port, it will filter all virtual LAN (VLAN) traffic traversing the trunk, including voice and data VLAN traffic. A PACL can be used with an EtherChannel configuration, but the PACL must be applied to the logical EtherChannel interface? physical ports within the EtherChannel group cannot have a PACL applied to them.
PACLs cannot be applied to a switch virtual interface (SVI) or to a routed port. An SVI is a virtual interface that is used as a gateway on a multilayer switch. SVIs can be used to route traffic across Layer 3 interfaces. However, PACLs can only be applied to Layer 2 switching interfaces. Furthermore, because PACLs operate at Layer 2, they cannot be applied to routed ports, which operate at Layer 3.
Exam Question 188
Which of the following flags in the output of the show ip mroute command indicates that a receiver is directly connected to the network segment that is connected to the interface? (Select the best answer.)
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. L
E. S
Correct Answer:
B. C
Answer Description:
The C flag in the output of the show ip mroute command indicates that a receiver is directly connected to the network segment that is connected to the interface. You can view the IP multicast routing table by issuing the show ip mroute command, as shown in the following output:
The A flag in the flags field would indicate that the router is a candidate for Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) advertisement. However, if the A flag is specified in the outgoing interface list, as shown in the previous output, the router is the winner of an assert mechanism and therefore becomes the forwarder.
The D flag would indicate that the router is using dense mode. The L flag would indicate that the local router is a member of the multicast group. The S flag would indicate that the router is using sparse mode.
Exam Question 189
Which of the following is true regarding the structure of a VPN ID? (Select the best answer.)
A. It begins with a 4-byte VPN index and ends with a 6-byte MAC address.
B. It begins with an 8-byte RD and ends with a 4-byte IPv4 address.
C. It begins with a 4-byte IPv4 address and ends with a 3-byte OUI.
D. It begins with a 3-byte OUI and ends with a 4-byte VPN index.
E. It begins with a 6-byte MAC address and ends with a 4-byte IPv4 address.
Correct Answer:
D. It begins with a 3-byte OUI and ends with a 4-byte VPN index.
Answer Description:
A virtual private network (VPN) ID begins with a 3byte Organizationally Unique Identifier(OUI) and ends with a 4byte VPN index. The VPN ID identifies a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF). To update a VPN ID for a VRF, issue the vpn id oui: vpn-index command from VRF configuration mode.
Although a Media Access Control (MAC) address contains an OUI, a VPN ID does notcontain a MAC address. A VPN ID also does not contain a route distinguisher (RD) or an IPv4 address. However, a multiprotocol Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) VPNIPv4 address begins with an 8byte RD and ends with a 4byte IPv4 address.
Exam Question 190
Which nodes are available in a two-node OpenStack architecture? (Select 2 choices.)
A. the compute node
B. the controller node
C. the network node
D. the server node
Correct Answer:
A. the compute node
B. the controller node
Answer Description:
The compute node and the controller node are available in a two-node OpenStack architecture. OpenStack is an opensource cloud computing platform. Each OpenStack modular component is responsible for a particular function, and each component has a code name. The following list contains several of the most popular OpenStack components:
- Nova -OpenStack Compute: manages pools of computer resources
- Neutron -OpenStack Networking: manages networking and addressing
- Cinder -OpenStack Block Storage: manages blocklevel storage devices
- Glance -OpenStack Image: manages disk and server images
- Swift -OpenStack Object Storage: manages redundant storage systems
- Keystone -OpenStack Identity: is responsible for authentication
- Horizon -OpenStack Dashboard: provides a graphical user interface (GUI)
- Ceilometer -OpenStackTelemetry: provides counterbased tracking that can be used for customer usage billing
The compute node in a twonode OpenStack architecture consists of the following services:
- Nova Hypervisor
- Kernelbased Virtual Machine (KVM) or Quick Emulator (QEMU)
- Nova Networking
- Ceilometer Agent
The controller node in a twonode OpenStack architecture consists of the following services:
- Keystone
- Glance
- Nova Management
- Horizon
- Cinder
- Swift
- Ceilometer Core
A threenode OpenStack architecture adds the network node and offloads networking functionality to the Neutron component. The network node consists of several Neutron services:
- Neutron Modular Layer 2 (ML2) PlugIn
- Neutron Layer 2 Agent
- Neutron Layer 3 Agent
- Neutron Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Agent
The compute node in a threenode OpenStack architecture removes Nova Networking and adds the Neutron Layer 2 Agent and the Neutron ML2 PlugIn. The controller node in a threenode OpenStack architecture adds the Neutron Server and the Neutron ML2 PlugIn.