Networking Concepts and Protocols
Question 1
Question
Which address is intended for private use and is unable to be routed on the public internet?
A. 34.5.66.8
B. 172.68.22.6
C. 10.192.1.10
D. 192.167.5.1
E. 8.8.8.8
Answer
C. 10.192.1.10
Question 2
Question
What is it called when an IP address has all Binary 0’s in the host portion?
A. Network Address
B. Unicast Address
C. Host Address
D. Broadcast Address
Answer
A. Network Address
Question 3
Question
What utility on a Windows workstation determines the public IP address of www.xxx.com?
A. ipconfig
B. dig
C. nslookup
D. tracert
Answer
C. nslookup
Question 4
Question
What is a collision domain?
A. A group of networked devices
B. A group of devices that use more than 1 IP network
C. A group of networked devices that can simultaneously detect a voltage spike
D. A single IP network
Answer
C. A group of networked devices that can simultaneously detect a voltage spike
Explanation
Question 5
Question
What is it called when we break down communication into fundamental components?
A. Networking
B. Detailing
C. Medium
D. Modeling
E. Scheduling
Answer
D. Modeling
Question 6
Question
In which OSI model layer does IP routing occur?
A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Transport
Answer
A. Network
Question 7
Question
Internet Protocol addressing is a function of which OSI model layer?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Network
E. Transport
Answer
D. Network
Question 8
Question
What application layer protocol uses TCP port 445?
A. sFTP
B. TFTP
C. SMB
D. SNMP
E. SMTP
Answer
C. SMB
Question 9
Question
What does an access control list do?
A. Modifies information in a frame header
B. Permits or denies traffic in or out of a router
C. Translates a private IP address into a public IP address in order to communicate on the Internet
D. Assigns IP addresses to devices on the network
Answer
B. Permits or denies traffic in or out of a router
Question 10
Question
Which of the following best describes the TCP three-way handshake?
A. SYN-ACK, ACK, FIN-ACK
B. SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK
C. SYN, SYN, ACK
D. SYN, ACK, SYN-ACK
E. SYN, ACK, FIN-ACK
Answer
B. SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK
Question 11
Question
How does TCP gracefully end a session?
A. FIN, SYN-ACK, FIN-ACK, ACK
B. SYN, FIN-ACK, ACK
C. FIN, FIN-ACK, FIN, FIN-ACK
D. FIN, ACK
E. FIN, FIN-ACK, ACK
Answer
C. FIN, FIN-ACK, FIN, FIN-ACK
Question 12
Question
Convert 250 from decimal to binary.
A. 11110010
B. 11111010
C. 10101010
D. 11111100
E. 11110110
Answer
B. 11111010
Question 13
Question
What specific property identifies a Layer 3 broadcast address?
A. All binary 1’s in the host portion
B. All binary 0’s in the host portion
C. Neither all binary 0’s nor all 1’s in the host portion
D. The address ends in .255
E. The broadcast address is the first address in a network
Answer
A. All binary 1’s in the host portion
Question 14
Question
A switch is configured to copy all data coming in and out of an interface into another interface. What is this called?
A. Port duplication
B. Port reflecting
C. Port mirroring
D. Port copying
Answer
C. Port mirroring
Question 15
Question
Which data link layer protocol is the most common on the Internet?
A. Token Ring
B. Sonet
C. Frame Relay
D. Ethernet
Answer
D. Ethernet
Question 16
Question
What is a common protocol used for authentication?
A. LDAPs
B. SSL
C. HTTP
D. SSH
E. SMB
Answer
A. LDAPs
Question 17
Question
What protocol is used to provide an IPv6 address to a workstation with little configuration?
A. DNS
B. SLAAC
C. DHCP
D. MEUI-64
Answer
B. SLAAC
Question 18
Question
Ethernet is part of which OSI model layer?
A. Application
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical
E. Transport
Answer
C. Data Link
Question 19
Question
What is data networking?
A. The hardware used to move information from one place to another
B. A collection of hardware and protocols that allows data to move from one device to another
C. A collection of hardware used to move data between protocols
D. Copper wires used to connect buildings
Answer
B. A collection of hardware and protocols that allows data to move from one device to another
Question 20
Question
What critical component of an IP packet header prevents packets from getting stuck in a loop?
A. Port number
B. Protocol number
C. TTL
D. Source IP address
E. Layer 4 protocol
Answer
C. TTL
Question 21
Question
What distinguishes UDP from TCP?
A. UDP does not require the use of DNS.
B. UDP uses a three-way handshake.
C. UDP uses RTP for reliable communication.
D. UDP does not make use of port numbers.
E. UDP does not acknowledge receipt of messages.
Answer
E. UDP does not acknowledge receipt of messages.
Question 22
Question
You’re watching a TV crime drama and see someone type IPconfig into a command prompt. You recognize that this computer will never communicate on any IP network. What’s the IP address being used?
A. 45.72.245.21
B. 8.8.8.8
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 219.55.267.3
E. 312.5.258.72
Answer
E. 312.5.258.72
Question 23
Question
What is the very first address in an IP network?
A. Network Address
B. Host Address
C. Multicast Address
D. Unicast Address
E. Broadcast Address
Answer
A. Network Address
Question 24
Question
How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 48
D. 32
Answer
B. 128
Question 25
Question
What critical information is contained in an Ethernet frame header?
A. ICMP header information
B. Source and Destination MAC Address
C. Source and Destination Port Number
D. Source and Destination IP Address
Answer
B. Source and Destination MAC Address
Question 26
Question
How can you describe a VLAN?
A. As a Storage Area Network
B. As a collision domain
C. As an IP network
D. As a broadcast domain
Answer
D. As a broadcast domain
Question 27
Question
How many interfaces does a router require to operate properly?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
Answer
A. 2
Question 28
Question
What protocol provides an automatically assigned IP address to a device connected to the network?
A. TCP
B. DNS
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
E. UDP
Answer
D. DHCP
Question 29
Question
What protocol provides certain traffic a higher priority than other traffic as it moves through a network?
A. VLAN Tagging
B. Domain Name System
C. Quality of Service
D. Priority of Service
Answer
C. Quality of Service
Question 30
Question
How many layers does the OSI model indentify?
A. 7
B. 3
C. 6
D. 4
Answer
A. 7
Question 31
Question
Convert 11000010 to decimal.
A. 224
B. 193
C. 194
D. 128
E. 192
Answer
C. 194
Question 32
Question
For address 232.166.5.143, which number(s) represents the host portion of the address?
A. .5.143
B. 232.166
C. 143
D. .166.5.143
E. 232
Answer
C. 143
Question 33
Question
What is the practice of using multiple subnet mask lengths to divide up a larger IP network?
A. Versatile Length Subnet Masking
B. Variable Length Subnet Masking
C. Classless Interdomain Routing
D. Multiple Length Subnetting
Answer
B. Variable Length Subnet Masking
Question 34
Question
What punctuation can be used to indicate a series of 0 in an IPv6 address, but can only be used once?
A. ::
B. –
C. ..
D. :
E. ;;
Answer
A. ::
Question 35
Question
What does full duplex mean in Ethernet?
A. Ethernet traffic can be sent or received, but not at the same time
B. Ethernet traffic can be sent and received at the same time
C. There are 2 CAT6 cables used to connect a NIC to a switch
D. There are 2 IP addresses assigned to the interface
Answer
B. Ethernet traffic can be sent and received at the same time
Question 36
Question
When might a broadcast storm occur?
A. When too many frames enter a switch
B. When 2 switches are connected with 2 Ethernet cables, and a spanning tree is not enabled
C. When 2 switches are connected with 2 Ethernet cables, and a spanning tree is enabled
D. When the frame is carrying more data than allowed by the MTU
Answer
B. When 2 switches are connected with 2 Ethernet cables, and a spanning tree is not enabled
Question 37
Question
HTTP and HTTPs are common networking protocols. At which layer of the OSI model do they reside?
A. Application
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer
A. Application
Question 38
Question
A router receives a packet, looks at the destination IP address, and then consults the routing table to find there is no route to the destination IP. What happens next?
A. The TTL is decreased by 5 before the packet is forwarded
B. The router stores the packet in cache until the routing protocol determines the path to the destination IP
C. The router forwards the packet to the original device with an error
D. The packet is dropped
Answer
D. The packet is dropped
Question 39
Question
What ports are used to send an email from a device to a server?
A. 22/23
B. 25/465
C. 80/443
D. 143/995
E. 110/9965
Answer
B. 25/465
Question 40
Question
Which part of the domain name www.xxx.com might be considered a second level domain?
A. com
B. www.xxx
C. xxx
D. xxx.com
E. www
Answer
E. www
Question 41
Question
What is the default gateway?
A. It’s one of the core routers used to run the Internet.
B. It’s the router a networked device uses when it does not know how to reach a packet’s destination IP address.
C. It’s the switch where a network device sends frames where the destination MAC Address is unknown.
D. It’s a specialized device on the network that can read Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers and acts as a firewall between networks.
Answer
B. It’s the router a networked device uses when it does not know how to reach a packet’s destination IP address.
Question 42
Question
Which address is inteded for private use and is unable to be routed on the public internet?
A. 192.167.5.1
B. 34.5.66.8
C. 8.8.8.8
D. 172.68.22.6
E. 10.192.1.10
Answer
E. 10.192.1.10
Question 43
Question
What is it alled when an IP address has all Binary 0’s in the host portion?
A. Multicast Address
B. Unicast Address
C. Host Address
D. Network Address
E. Broadcast Address
Answer
D. Network Address
Question 44
Question
What functional name can be given to a telephone handset?
A. Signal
B. Medium
C. Bridge
D. Sender
E. Data
Answer
C. Bridge
Question 45
Question
What is TRACERT?
A. A utility that determines the geographic location of router
B. A utility that determines the uptime of the destination server
C. A utility that reports the routers between the source IP and destination IP
D. A protocol used to route messages between routers
Answer
C. A utility that reports the routers between the source IP and destination IP
Question 46
Question
What protocol allows the use of a private IP address on an internal network and still allows for Internet communication?
A. Internet Protocol
B. Domain Name System
C. Network Address Translation
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer
C. Network Address Translation
Question 47
Question
In addition to IP address and Subnet mask, what additional information does a DHCP server supply to a network device?
A. DNS and LDAP authentication
B. Default Gateway and DNS
C. Default Gateway and Default Browser Home Page
D. Default Gateway and Routing Protocol
Answer
B. Default Gateway and DNS
Question 48
Question
What does a DHCP server do?
A. It routes traffic from your PC to the router.
B. It translates domain names to an IP address.
C. It enforces a QoS Policy.
D. It dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network.
Answer
D. It dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network.
Question 49
Question
Why might you need port forwarding?
A. To allow for a device with a private IP address to communicate with the public Internet
B. To prevent devices on an internal network from communicating with devices on the public Internet
C. To allow for a device on the Internet to communicate with a device assigned a private IP address
D. To allow a single device on the public Internet to talk to many devices on an internal private network
Answer
C. To allow for a device on the Internet to communicate with a device assigned a private IP address
PowerShell: Getting Started
Question 50
Question
Where do you find the official documentation for PowerShell commands?
A. docs.microsoft.com
B. powershellgallery.com
C. technet.microsoft.com
D. msdn.microsoft.com
Answer
A. docs.microsoft.com
Question 51
Question
In order to run PowerShell on a Linux or Mac OS computer, which of these needs to be installed
A. PowerShell Core
B. Windows PowerShell
C. Visual Studio Code
D. Windows PowerShell ISE
Answer
A. PowerShell Core
Question 52
Question
When searching for files in a directory structure with get-childitem, what parameter is used to search all folders and sub-folders?
A. -Verbose
B. -Recurse
C. -SilentlyContinue
D. -Type
Answer
B. -Recurse
Question 53
Question
What cmdlet is used to create new mapped drive connections to a network file share?
A. New-Item
B. Set-SMBMapping
C. New-SMBMapping
D. New-Printer
Answer
C. New-SMBMapping
Question 54
Question
Which extension is used to denote a PowerShell script?
A. .ppt
B. .vbs
C. .ps1
D. .csv
Answer
C. .ps1
Question 55
Question
Which command will perform multiple mathematical calculations against a command’s output?
A. Get-ChildItem
B. Measure-Object
C. Format-Custom
D. Select-Object
Answer
B. Measure-Object
Question 56
Question
Which symbol is used to signify a variable?
A. Exclamation Point (!)
B. Percent Sign (%)
C. Hash (#)
D. Dollar sign ($)
Answer
D. Dollar sign ($)
Question 57
Question
Which of the following tools is used primarily for creating and editing PowerShell scripts?
A. Microsoft Word
B. Windows PowerShell Console
C. Server Manager
D. Windows PowerShell ISE
Answer
D. Windows PowerShell ISE
Question 58
Question
You need to display three specific properties for all objects in a command’s output. Which of the following can be used to diplay these properties?
A. out-file
B. where-object
C. get-member
D. select-object
Answer
D. select-object
Question 59
Question
Which of the following can be used to filter pipeline output by an object’s property value?
A. select-object
B. get-member
C. out-file
D. where-object
Answer
D. where-object
Question 60
Question
Which of the following is the correct alias for Get-Member?
A. gm
B. ?
C. gcm
D. git
Answer
A. gm
Question 61
Question
Which remoting option allows you to open an interactive console session on a remote system?
A. Enter-PSSession
B. Enable-PSSessionConfiguration
C. Invoke-Command
D. New-CimSession
Answer
A. Enter-PSSession
Question 62
Question
Which function key will run a selection of code in PowerShell ISE?
A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9
Answer
C. F8
Question 63
Question
Which of the following commands is used to set up a Windows computer to be a PowerShell Remoting target?
A. Set-PSSessionConfiguration
B. Enable-PSRemoting
C. Invoke-command
D. Enter-PSSession
Answer
B. Enable-PSRemoting
Question 64
Question
Which of the following displays the output of a command in a GUI-like console?
A. Out-file
B. Out-Gridview
C. Format-Table
D. Format-List
Answer
B. Out-Gridview
Question 65
Question
Which of the following operating systems supports the use of CIM for gathering information?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Windows Server 2008 R2
D. Windows 10
Answer
D. Windows 10
Question 66
Question
The recommend first step for creating a script is to…
A. create your variables.
B. run the commands with hard-coded values.
C. create your parameters.
D. run the commands with variables.
Answer
B. run the commands with hard-coded values.
Question 67
Question
Which of the following is used when performing wildcard actions?
A. ?
B. %
C. *
D. |
Answer
C. *
Question 68
Question
When installing PowerShell 6.1 (core), where are the installation files hosted?
A. It is installed by default.
B. github.com
C. docs.microsoft.com
D. powershellgallery.com
Answer
B. github.com
Question 69
Question
What characters are used to designate a script block?
A. Double quotes “”
B. Curly brackets {}
D. Single quotes ”
D. Parentheses ()
Answer
B. Curly brackets {}
Question 70
Question
Which of the following parameters for Get-Help will display how to use a specific command?
A. -Online
B. -Detailed
C. -Examples
D. -Name
Answer
C. -Examples
Question 71
Question
What parameter causes PowerShell commands to reply back with detailed output including actions the command is to complete?
A. -Include
B. -filter
C. -Verbose
D. -Force
Answer
C. -Verbose
Question 72
Question
Which built-in tool is designed specifically for creating and managing PowerShell scripts?
A. WordPad
B. Windows Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE)
C. PowerShell Console
D. Visual Studio Code
Answer
B. Windows Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE)
Question 73
Question
Which of the following commands will display the help file for get-service from the PowerShell Console?
A. get-command | get-help
B. help get-command
C. get-command get-help
D. ? get-command
Answer
B. help get-command
Question 74
Question
Which command is used to view the properties attached to the objects produced by a cmdlet?
A. Get-Member
B. Get-Command
C. Get-Help
D. Get-Property
Answer
A. Get-Member
Question 75
Question
In order to run scripts in PowerShell, you first need to run this command with the appropriate parameters:
A. Set-PSSessionConfiguration
B. New-PSSession
C. Enable-PSRemoting
D. Set-ExecutionPolicy
Answer
D. Set-ExecutionPolicy
Question 76
Question
Which of the following records commands input and output in the PowerShell console?
A. start-transcript
B. get-history
C. get-command
D. out-file
Answer
A. start-transcript
Windows Server Administration Concepts: Basics and Installation
Question 77
Question
Which is a resource type that Plug and Play can allocate?
A. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) port address
B. Interrupt request (IRQ)
C. Processor core
D. Device global unique identifier (GUID)
Answer
B. Interrupt request (IRQ)
Question 78
Question
What is one advantage of the Services console over the System Configuration Tool MSCONFIG?
A. It can hide all non-Microsoft services
B. It shows the status of each service
C. It can manage remote servers
D. It allows the user to selectively enable or disable services
Answer
C. It can manage remote servers
Question 79
Question
What is a good way for administrators to avoid the risk of service accounts failing to work due to an expired password?
A. Create a scheduled task to periodically reset all service accounts
B. Create Password Settings Objects (PSOs)
C. Use managed service accounts
D. Modify domain password policies
Answer
C. Use managed service accounts
Question 80
Question
If you sign up for the Long-Term Servicing Channel for Windows Server Standard edition, how long is the support period?
A. 18 months
B. 10 years
C. Five years
D. 12 months
Answer
B. 10 years
Question 81
Question
On what basis is Windows Server 2019 licensed?
A. Per-computer
B. Per-processor
C. Per-core
D. Per-thread
Answer
C. Per-core
Question 82
Question
How does a disabled device appear in Device Manager?
A. Red question mark
B. Red X
C. Yellow exclamation mark
D. Black down-arrow
Answer
D. Black down-arrow
Question 83
Question
How many domain controllers can you have on a network running Windows Server Essentials?
A. None
B. Four
C. Two
D. One
Answer
D. One
Question 84
Question
What hardware requirement applies to the Secure Boot feature?
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)
C. Second Level Address Translation (SLAT)
D. Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)
Answer
D. Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)
Question 85
Question
What type of volume is a good candidate for the Resilient File System (ReFS) file system?
A. Operating system
B. User profile storage
C. Shared folders
D. Virtual machine storage
Answer
D. Virtual machine storage
Question 86
Question
Which statement is true when using Active Directory Activation to activate servers?
A. It requires a special Domain Name System (DNS) entry.
B. It can only activate Server 2016 and newer.
C. It requires a multiple activation key (MAK).
D. It can only activate Server 2012 and newer.
Answer
D. It can only activate Server 2012 and newer.
Question 87
Question
Where can you learn the global unique identifier (GUID) for a particular hardware device?
A. Device Manager
B. MSINFO32
C. System Configuration
D. Group Policy Management Editor
Answer
A. Device Manager
Question 88
Question
How many levels can you roll back a device driver that has been updated four times?
A. Four
B. Two
C. One
D. Three
Answer
C. One
Question 89
Question
What term describes servers that have multiple Network Interface Cards (NICs)?
A. Multinetworked
B. Multicast
C. Multiport
D. Multihomed
Answer
D. Multihomed
Question 90
Question
What technique would you use to change from Server Core to Desktop Experience?
A. install-windowsoptionalfeature
B. Reinstall Windows Server
C. Add roles and features
D. DISM.EXE
Answer
B. Reinstall Windows Server
Question 91
Question
Where can you find the “Add Roles and Features” wizard in Server Manager?
A. Dashboard
B. Admin Center
C. Tools menu
D. Local Server
Answer
A. Dashboard
Question 92
Question
You are setting up Windows Server Datacenter and you need a four-terabyte main partition. Which partitioning scheme should you use?
A. Solid-state drive (SSD)
B. Master boot record (MBR)
C. Dynamic Disk
D. GUID Partition Table (GPT)
Answer
D. GUID Partition Table (GPT)
Question 93
Question
What operating system do Windows Server boot images run in?
A. Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE)
B. Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE)
C. PowerShell
D. Server Core
Answer
B. Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE)
Question 94
Question
What does Microsoft recommend for migrating a file server to a new Server 2019 system?
A. Windows Server Migration Tools
B. Server Manager
C. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
D. Storage Migration Service
Answer
D. Storage Migration Service
Question 95
Question
What view do we typically use when working with Device Manager?
A. View devices by type
B. View devices by connection
C. View resources by connection
D. View resources by type
Answer
A. View devices by type
Question 96
Question
What tool shows all services that start when a Windows server boots?
A. Autoruns
B. MSINFO32
C. SERVICES.MSC
D. System Configuration
Answer
D. System Configuration
Question 97
Question
How many virtual machine licenses come with Windows Server Datacenter?
A. Two
B. None
C. Four
D. Unlimited
Answer
D. Unlimited
Question 98
Question
Your server has an integrated Bluetooth circuit but you will not use it. What should you do in Device Manager with the Bluetooth driver?
A. Pause it
B. Disable it
C. Hide it
D. Remove it
Answer
B. Disable it
Question 99
Question
You have a Windows Server 2016 system and need it to run Server 2019. All things being equal, which installation method is fastest?
A. In-place upgrade
B. Wipe-and-load
C. Clean install with migration
D. In-place upgrade with migration
Answer
A. In-place upgrade