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Common Technical Interview Questions and Answers Update on March 24, 2022

Networking Concepts and Protocols

Question 1

Question

Which address is intended for private use and is unable to be routed on the public internet?

A. 34.5.66.8
B. 172.68.22.6
C. 10.192.1.10
D. 192.167.5.1
E. 8.8.8.8

Answer

C. 10.192.1.10

Question 2

Question

What is it called when an IP address has all Binary 0’s in the host portion?

A. Network Address
B. Unicast Address
C. Host Address
D. Broadcast Address

Answer

A. Network Address

Question 3

Question

What utility on a Windows workstation determines the public IP address of www.xxx.com?

A. ipconfig
B. dig
C. nslookup
D. tracert

Answer

C. nslookup

Question 4

Question

What is a collision domain?

A. A group of networked devices
B. A group of devices that use more than 1 IP network
C. A group of networked devices that can simultaneously detect a voltage spike
D. A single IP network

Answer

C. A group of networked devices that can simultaneously detect a voltage spike

Explanation

Question 5

Question

What is it called when we break down communication into fundamental components?

A. Networking
B. Detailing
C. Medium
D. Modeling
E. Scheduling

Answer

D. Modeling

Question 6

Question

In which OSI model layer does IP routing occur?

A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Transport

Answer

A. Network

Question 7

Question

Internet Protocol addressing is a function of which OSI model layer?

A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Network
E. Transport

Answer

D. Network

Question 8

Question

What application layer protocol uses TCP port 445?

A. sFTP
B. TFTP
C. SMB
D. SNMP
E. SMTP

Answer

C. SMB

Question 9

Question

What does an access control list do?

A. Modifies information in a frame header
B. Permits or denies traffic in or out of a router
C. Translates a private IP address into a public IP address in order to communicate on the Internet
D. Assigns IP addresses to devices on the network

Answer

B. Permits or denies traffic in or out of a router

Question 10

Question

Which of the following best describes the TCP three-way handshake?

A. SYN-ACK, ACK, FIN-ACK
B. SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK
C. SYN, SYN, ACK
D. SYN, ACK, SYN-ACK
E. SYN, ACK, FIN-ACK

Answer

B. SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK

Question 11

Question

How does TCP gracefully end a session?

A. FIN, SYN-ACK, FIN-ACK, ACK
B. SYN, FIN-ACK, ACK
C. FIN, FIN-ACK, FIN, FIN-ACK
D. FIN, ACK
E. FIN, FIN-ACK, ACK

Answer

C. FIN, FIN-ACK, FIN, FIN-ACK

Question 12

Question

Convert 250 from decimal to binary.

A. 11110010
B. 11111010
C. 10101010
D. 11111100
E. 11110110

Answer

B. 11111010

Question 13

Question

What specific property identifies a Layer 3 broadcast address?

A. All binary 1’s in the host portion
B. All binary 0’s in the host portion
C. Neither all binary 0’s nor all 1’s in the host portion
D. The address ends in .255
E. The broadcast address is the first address in a network

Answer

A. All binary 1’s in the host portion

Question 14

Question

A switch is configured to copy all data coming in and out of an interface into another interface. What is this called?

A. Port duplication
B. Port reflecting
C. Port mirroring
D. Port copying

Answer

C. Port mirroring

Question 15

Question

Which data link layer protocol is the most common on the Internet?

A. Token Ring
B. Sonet
C. Frame Relay
D. Ethernet

Answer

D. Ethernet

Question 16

Question

What is a common protocol used for authentication?

A. LDAPs
B. SSL
C. HTTP
D. SSH
E. SMB

Answer

A. LDAPs

Question 17

Question

What protocol is used to provide an IPv6 address to a workstation with little configuration?

A. DNS
B. SLAAC
C. DHCP
D. MEUI-64

Answer

B. SLAAC

Question 18

Question

Ethernet is part of which OSI model layer?

A. Application
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical
E. Transport

Answer

C. Data Link

Question 19

Question

What is data networking?

A. The hardware used to move information from one place to another
B. A collection of hardware and protocols that allows data to move from one device to another
C. A collection of hardware used to move data between protocols
D. Copper wires used to connect buildings

Answer

B. A collection of hardware and protocols that allows data to move from one device to another

Question 20

Question

What critical component of an IP packet header prevents packets from getting stuck in a loop?

A. Port number
B. Protocol number
C. TTL
D. Source IP address
E. Layer 4 protocol

Answer

C. TTL

Question 21

Question

What distinguishes UDP from TCP?

A. UDP does not require the use of DNS.
B. UDP uses a three-way handshake.
C. UDP uses RTP for reliable communication.
D. UDP does not make use of port numbers.
E. UDP does not acknowledge receipt of messages.

Answer

E. UDP does not acknowledge receipt of messages.

Question 22

Question

You’re watching a TV crime drama and see someone type IPconfig into a command prompt. You recognize that this computer will never communicate on any IP network. What’s the IP address being used?

A. 45.72.245.21
B. 8.8.8.8
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 219.55.267.3
E. 312.5.258.72

Answer

E. 312.5.258.72

Question 23

Question

What is the very first address in an IP network?

A. Network Address
B. Host Address
C. Multicast Address
D. Unicast Address
E. Broadcast Address

Answer

A. Network Address

Question 24

Question

How many bits are in an IPv6 address?

A. 64
B. 128
C. 48
D. 32

Answer

B. 128

Question 25

Question

What critical information is contained in an Ethernet frame header?

A. ICMP header information
B. Source and Destination MAC Address
C. Source and Destination Port Number
D. Source and Destination IP Address

Answer

B. Source and Destination MAC Address

Question 26

Question

How can you describe a VLAN?

A. As a Storage Area Network
B. As a collision domain
C. As an IP network
D. As a broadcast domain

Answer

D. As a broadcast domain

Question 27

Question

How many interfaces does a router require to operate properly?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3

Answer

A. 2

Question 28

Question

What protocol provides an automatically assigned IP address to a device connected to the network?

A. TCP
B. DNS
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
E. UDP

Answer

D. DHCP

Question 29

Question

What protocol provides certain traffic a higher priority than other traffic as it moves through a network?

A. VLAN Tagging
B. Domain Name System
C. Quality of Service
D. Priority of Service

Answer

C. Quality of Service

Question 30

Question

How many layers does the OSI model indentify?

A. 7
B. 3
C. 6
D. 4

Answer

A. 7

Question 31

Question

Convert 11000010 to decimal.

A. 224
B. 193
C. 194
D. 128
E. 192

Answer

C. 194

Question 32

Question

For address 232.166.5.143, which number(s) represents the host portion of the address?

A. .5.143
B. 232.166
C. 143
D. .166.5.143
E. 232

Answer

C. 143

Question 33

Question

What is the practice of using multiple subnet mask lengths to divide up a larger IP network?

A. Versatile Length Subnet Masking
B. Variable Length Subnet Masking
C. Classless Interdomain Routing
D. Multiple Length Subnetting

Answer

B. Variable Length Subnet Masking

Question 34

Question

What punctuation can be used to indicate a series of 0 in an IPv6 address, but can only be used once?

A. ::
B. –
C. ..
D. :
E. ;;

Answer

A. ::

Question 35

Question

What does full duplex mean in Ethernet?

A. Ethernet traffic can be sent or received, but not at the same time
B. Ethernet traffic can be sent and received at the same time
C. There are 2 CAT6 cables used to connect a NIC to a switch
D. There are 2 IP addresses assigned to the interface

Answer

B. Ethernet traffic can be sent and received at the same time

Question 36

Question

When might a broadcast storm occur?

A. When too many frames enter a switch
B. When 2 switches are connected with 2 Ethernet cables, and a spanning tree is not enabled
C. When 2 switches are connected with 2 Ethernet cables, and a spanning tree is enabled
D. When the frame is carrying more data than allowed by the MTU

Answer

B. When 2 switches are connected with 2 Ethernet cables, and a spanning tree is not enabled

Question 37

Question

HTTP and HTTPs are common networking protocols. At which layer of the OSI model do they reside?

A. Application
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Session

Answer

A. Application

Question 38

Question

A router receives a packet, looks at the destination IP address, and then consults the routing table to find there is no route to the destination IP. What happens next?

A. The TTL is decreased by 5 before the packet is forwarded
B. The router stores the packet in cache until the routing protocol determines the path to the destination IP
C. The router forwards the packet to the original device with an error
D. The packet is dropped

Answer

D. The packet is dropped

Question 39

Question

What ports are used to send an email from a device to a server?

A. 22/23
B. 25/465
C. 80/443
D. 143/995
E. 110/9965

Answer

B. 25/465

Question 40

Question

Which part of the domain name www.xxx.com might be considered a second level domain?

A. com
B. www.xxx
C. xxx
D. xxx.com
E. www

Answer

E. www

Question 41

Question

What is the default gateway?

A. It’s one of the core routers used to run the Internet.
B. It’s the router a networked device uses when it does not know how to reach a packet’s destination IP address.
C. It’s the switch where a network device sends frames where the destination MAC Address is unknown.
D. It’s a specialized device on the network that can read Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers and acts as a firewall between networks.

Answer

B. It’s the router a networked device uses when it does not know how to reach a packet’s destination IP address.

Question 42

Question

Which address is inteded for private use and is unable to be routed on the public internet?

A. 192.167.5.1
B. 34.5.66.8
C. 8.8.8.8
D. 172.68.22.6
E. 10.192.1.10

Answer

E. 10.192.1.10

Question 43

Question

What is it alled when an IP address has all Binary 0’s in the host portion?

A. Multicast Address
B. Unicast Address
C. Host Address
D. Network Address
E. Broadcast Address

Answer

D. Network Address

Question 44

Question

What functional name can be given to a telephone handset?

A. Signal
B. Medium
C. Bridge
D. Sender
E. Data

Answer

C. Bridge

Question 45

Question

What is TRACERT?

A. A utility that determines the geographic location of router
B. A utility that determines the uptime of the destination server
C. A utility that reports the routers between the source IP and destination IP
D. A protocol used to route messages between routers

Answer

C. A utility that reports the routers between the source IP and destination IP

Question 46

Question

What protocol allows the use of a private IP address on an internal network and still allows for Internet communication?

A. Internet Protocol
B. Domain Name System
C. Network Address Translation
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

Answer

C. Network Address Translation

Question 47

Question

In addition to IP address and Subnet mask, what additional information does a DHCP server supply to a network device?

A. DNS and LDAP authentication
B. Default Gateway and DNS
C. Default Gateway and Default Browser Home Page
D. Default Gateway and Routing Protocol

Answer

B. Default Gateway and DNS

Question 48

Question

What does a DHCP server do?

A. It routes traffic from your PC to the router.
B. It translates domain names to an IP address.
C. It enforces a QoS Policy.
D. It dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network.

Answer

D. It dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on the network.

Question 49

Question

Why might you need port forwarding?

A. To allow for a device with a private IP address to communicate with the public Internet
B. To prevent devices on an internal network from communicating with devices on the public Internet
C. To allow for a device on the Internet to communicate with a device assigned a private IP address
D. To allow a single device on the public Internet to talk to many devices on an internal private network

Answer

C. To allow for a device on the Internet to communicate with a device assigned a private IP address

PowerShell: Getting Started

Question 50

Question

Where do you find the official documentation for PowerShell commands?

A. docs.microsoft.com
B. powershellgallery.com
C. technet.microsoft.com
D. msdn.microsoft.com

Answer

A. docs.microsoft.com

Question 51

Question

In order to run PowerShell on a Linux or Mac OS computer, which of these needs to be installed

A. PowerShell Core
B. Windows PowerShell
C. Visual Studio Code
D. Windows PowerShell ISE

Answer

A. PowerShell Core

Question 52

Question

When searching for files in a directory structure with get-childitem, what parameter is used to search all folders and sub-folders?

A. -Verbose
B. -Recurse
C. -SilentlyContinue
D. -Type

Answer

B. -Recurse

Question 53

Question

What cmdlet is used to create new mapped drive connections to a network file share?

A. New-Item
B. Set-SMBMapping
C. New-SMBMapping
D. New-Printer

Answer

C. New-SMBMapping

Question 54

Question

Which extension is used to denote a PowerShell script?

A. .ppt
B. .vbs
C. .ps1
D. .csv

Answer

C. .ps1

Question 55

Question

Which command will perform multiple mathematical calculations against a command’s output?

A. Get-ChildItem
B. Measure-Object
C. Format-Custom
D. Select-Object

Answer

B. Measure-Object

Question 56

Question

Which symbol is used to signify a variable?

A. Exclamation Point (!)
B. Percent Sign (%)
C. Hash (#)
D. Dollar sign ($)

Answer

D. Dollar sign ($)

Question 57

Question

Which of the following tools is used primarily for creating and editing PowerShell scripts?

A. Microsoft Word
B. Windows PowerShell Console
C. Server Manager
D. Windows PowerShell ISE

Answer

D. Windows PowerShell ISE

Question 58

Question

You need to display three specific properties for all objects in a command’s output. Which of the following can be used to diplay these properties?

A. out-file
B. where-object
C. get-member
D. select-object

Answer

D. select-object

Question 59

Question

Which of the following can be used to filter pipeline output by an object’s property value?

A. select-object
B. get-member
C. out-file
D. where-object

Answer

D. where-object

Question 60

Question

Which of the following is the correct alias for Get-Member?

A. gm
B. ?
C. gcm
D. git

Answer

A. gm

Question 61

Question

Which remoting option allows you to open an interactive console session on a remote system?

A. Enter-PSSession
B. Enable-PSSessionConfiguration
C. Invoke-Command
D. New-CimSession

Answer

A. Enter-PSSession

Question 62

Question

Which function key will run a selection of code in PowerShell ISE?

A. F6
B. F7
C. F8
D. F9

Answer

C. F8

Question 63

Question

Which of the following commands is used to set up a Windows computer to be a PowerShell Remoting target?

A. Set-PSSessionConfiguration
B. Enable-PSRemoting
C. Invoke-command
D. Enter-PSSession

Answer

B. Enable-PSRemoting

Question 64

Question

Which of the following displays the output of a command in a GUI-like console?

A. Out-file
B. Out-Gridview
C. Format-Table
D. Format-List

Answer

B. Out-Gridview

Question 65

Question

Which of the following operating systems supports the use of CIM for gathering information?

A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Windows Server 2008 R2
D. Windows 10

Answer

D. Windows 10

Question 66

Question

The recommend first step for creating a script is to…

A. create your variables.
B. run the commands with hard-coded values.
C. create your parameters.
D. run the commands with variables.

Answer

B. run the commands with hard-coded values.

Question 67

Question

Which of the following is used when performing wildcard actions?

A. ?
B. %
C. *
D. |

Answer

C. *

Question 68

Question

When installing PowerShell 6.1 (core), where are the installation files hosted?

A. It is installed by default.
B. github.com
C. docs.microsoft.com
D. powershellgallery.com

Answer

B. github.com

Question 69

Question

What characters are used to designate a script block?

A. Double quotes “”
B. Curly brackets {}
D. Single quotes ”
D. Parentheses ()

Answer

B. Curly brackets {}

Question 70

Question

Which of the following parameters for Get-Help will display how to use a specific command?

A. -Online
B. -Detailed
C. -Examples
D. -Name

Answer

C. -Examples

Question 71

Question

What parameter causes PowerShell commands to reply back with detailed output including actions the command is to complete?

A. -Include
B. -filter
C. -Verbose
D. -Force

Answer

C. -Verbose

Question 72

Question

Which built-in tool is designed specifically for creating and managing PowerShell scripts?

A. WordPad
B. Windows Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE)
C. PowerShell Console
D. Visual Studio Code

Answer

B. Windows Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE)

Question 73

Question

Which of the following commands will display the help file for get-service from the PowerShell Console?

A. get-command | get-help
B. help get-command
C. get-command get-help
D. ? get-command

Answer

B. help get-command

Question 74

Question

Which command is used to view the properties attached to the objects produced by a cmdlet?

A. Get-Member
B. Get-Command
C. Get-Help
D. Get-Property

Answer

A. Get-Member

Question 75

Question

In order to run scripts in PowerShell, you first need to run this command with the appropriate parameters:

A. Set-PSSessionConfiguration
B. New-PSSession
C. Enable-PSRemoting
D. Set-ExecutionPolicy

Answer

D. Set-ExecutionPolicy

Question 76

Question

Which of the following records commands input and output in the PowerShell console?

A. start-transcript
B. get-history
C. get-command
D. out-file

Answer

A. start-transcript

Windows Server Administration Concepts: Basics and Installation

Question 77

Question

Which is a resource type that Plug and Play can allocate?

A. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) port address
B. Interrupt request (IRQ)
C. Processor core
D. Device global unique identifier (GUID)

Answer

B. Interrupt request (IRQ)

Question 78

Question

What is one advantage of the Services console over the System Configuration Tool MSCONFIG?

A. It can hide all non-Microsoft services
B. It shows the status of each service
C. It can manage remote servers
D. It allows the user to selectively enable or disable services

Answer

C. It can manage remote servers

Question 79

Question

What is a good way for administrators to avoid the risk of service accounts failing to work due to an expired password?

A. Create a scheduled task to periodically reset all service accounts
B. Create Password Settings Objects (PSOs)
C. Use managed service accounts
D. Modify domain password policies

Answer

C. Use managed service accounts

Question 80

Question

If you sign up for the Long-Term Servicing Channel for Windows Server Standard edition, how long is the support period?

A. 18 months
B. 10 years
C. Five years
D. 12 months

Answer

B. 10 years

Question 81

Question

On what basis is Windows Server 2019 licensed?

A. Per-computer
B. Per-processor
C. Per-core
D. Per-thread

Answer

C. Per-core

Question 82

Question

How does a disabled device appear in Device Manager?

A. Red question mark
B. Red X
C. Yellow exclamation mark
D. Black down-arrow

Answer

D. Black down-arrow

Question 83

Question

How many domain controllers can you have on a network running Windows Server Essentials?

A. None
B. Four
C. Two
D. One

Answer

D. One

Question 84

Question

What hardware requirement applies to the Secure Boot feature?

A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)
C. Second Level Address Translation (SLAT)
D. Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

Answer

D. Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

Question 85

Question

What type of volume is a good candidate for the Resilient File System (ReFS) file system?

A. Operating system
B. User profile storage
C. Shared folders
D. Virtual machine storage

Answer

D. Virtual machine storage

Question 86

Question

Which statement is true when using Active Directory Activation to activate servers?

A. It requires a special Domain Name System (DNS) entry.
B. It can only activate Server 2016 and newer.
C. It requires a multiple activation key (MAK).
D. It can only activate Server 2012 and newer.

Answer

D. It can only activate Server 2012 and newer.

Question 87

Question

Where can you learn the global unique identifier (GUID) for a particular hardware device?

A. Device Manager
B. MSINFO32
C. System Configuration
D. Group Policy Management Editor

Answer

A. Device Manager

Question 88

Question

How many levels can you roll back a device driver that has been updated four times?

A. Four
B. Two
C. One
D. Three

Answer

C. One

Question 89

Question

What term describes servers that have multiple Network Interface Cards (NICs)?

A. Multinetworked
B. Multicast
C. Multiport
D. Multihomed

Answer

D. Multihomed

Question 90

Question

What technique would you use to change from Server Core to Desktop Experience?

A. install-windowsoptionalfeature
B. Reinstall Windows Server
C. Add roles and features
D. DISM.EXE

Answer

B. Reinstall Windows Server

Question 91

Question

Where can you find the “Add Roles and Features” wizard in Server Manager?

A. Dashboard
B. Admin Center
C. Tools menu
D. Local Server

Answer

A. Dashboard

Question 92

Question

You are setting up Windows Server Datacenter and you need a four-terabyte main partition. Which partitioning scheme should you use?

A. Solid-state drive (SSD)
B. Master boot record (MBR)
C. Dynamic Disk
D. GUID Partition Table (GPT)

Answer

D. GUID Partition Table (GPT)

Question 93

Question

What operating system do Windows Server boot images run in?

A. Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE)
B. Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE)
C. PowerShell
D. Server Core

Answer

B. Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE)

Question 94

Question

What does Microsoft recommend for migrating a file server to a new Server 2019 system?

A. Windows Server Migration Tools
B. Server Manager
C. User State Migration Tool (USMT)
D. Storage Migration Service

Answer

D. Storage Migration Service

Question 95

Question

What view do we typically use when working with Device Manager?

A. View devices by type
B. View devices by connection
C. View resources by connection
D. View resources by type

Answer

A. View devices by type

Question 96

Question

What tool shows all services that start when a Windows server boots?

A. Autoruns
B. MSINFO32
C. SERVICES.MSC
D. System Configuration

Answer

D. System Configuration

Question 97

Question

How many virtual machine licenses come with Windows Server Datacenter?

A. Two
B. None
C. Four
D. Unlimited

Answer

D. Unlimited

Question 98

Question

Your server has an integrated Bluetooth circuit but you will not use it. What should you do in Device Manager with the Bluetooth driver?

A. Pause it
B. Disable it
C. Hide it
D. Remove it

Answer

B. Disable it

Question 99

Question

You have a Windows Server 2016 system and need it to run Server 2019. All things being equal, which installation method is fastest?

A. In-place upgrade
B. Wipe-and-load
C. Clean install with migration
D. In-place upgrade with migration

Answer

A. In-place upgrade

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