Exam Question 1
How fast is the market for container technology expected to grow by 2020 (expressed as a compound annual growth rate percentage)?
A. 15%
B. 27%
C. 40%
D. 72%
Correct Answer:
C. 40%
Answer Description:
According to the January 2017 “Cloud-Enabling Technologies Market Monitor” study from 451 Research, the application container market is expected to surge from $762 million in 2016 to $2.7 billion by 2020, an estimated compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of 40%. The entire market for cloud-enabling technologies — which encompasses virtualization, containers, private platform as a service, and other automation and management software — is forecast to grow at a 15% CAGR, from $23.1 billion in 2017 to $39.6 billion in 2020.
Exam Question 2
As of June 2016, what percentage of enterprise IT buyers indicated their companies had implemented application containers?
A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 55%
D. 70%
Correct Answer:
A. 25%
Answer Description:
Given that the media (including SearchCloudApplications) writes continually about containers, the technology is only now catching on in a big way. According to enterprise IT buyers who were surveyed during April and May 2016 by 451 Research, 25% indicated their enterprises use containers. Of that 25%, one-third were already in a broad implementation phase, while 28% described their companies as having begun initial implementation of production applications with containers. The numbers seem low, but 451 Research characterized the percentages as an “impressive adoption growth profile” for a technology one the enterprise scene for only a few years.
Exam Question 3
What percentage of hosts monitored by performance-monitoring services provider Datadog run Docker application containers?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 25%
Correct Answer:
B. 10%
Answer Description:
As of June 2016, Datadog reported that 10% of the hosts it monitors run Docker containers. While that might seem low, the figure was a miniscule 2% just 18 months earlier. The percentage of monitored hosts actually dipped slightly in late summer 2015, but growth picked up soon after that, though the rate of growth is not quite as steep.
Exam Question 4
If you’ve got containers, you need to manage them. Of the container orchestration tools mentioned in a 2016 survey from ClusterHQ, rank the four used most.
A. Kubernetes, internally developed tools, Docker Swarm, Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud Container Service (ECS)
B. Docker Swarm, Kubernetes, Amazon ECS, internally developed tools
C. Amazon ECS, Kubernetes, Docker Swarm, internally developed tools
Correct Answer:
A. Kubernetes, internally developed tools, Docker Swarm, Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud Container Service (ECS)
Answer Description:
Though the ClusterHQ survey noted that Kubernetes was the container orchestration tool cited by 40% of survey respondents, both internally developed tools and Docker Swarm were close behind — tied at 32% each — with Amazon ECS not far behind at 24%. That’s quite a change from 2015 when Docker Swarm led the pack at 50%. What does the year-to-year shake-up mean? ClusterHQ believes it indicates that “people are still experimenting with multiple container managers to figure out which is the right tool for the job.”
Exam Question 5
With so many benefits to using application containers, which one of these reasons ranks top among 310 IT professionals working in smaller organizations?
A. Cloud provider portability
B. Cut virtual machine licensing expense
C. Support microservices architectures
D. Increase developer efficiency
Correct Answer:
D. Increase developer efficiency
Answer Description:
Yes, these are all perfectly valid reasons for implementing application containers, but increasing developer efficiency was the top benefit cited by 38% of ClusterHQ survey respondents. Close behind, at 36%, was containers’ ability to support microservices architectures. Portability — and the corresponding avoidance of cloud platform provider lock-in — was cited by 11%. Bringing up the rear at a surprisingly low 3% was the virtual machine licensing fee reductions often seen with the implementation of containers. Then again, CFOs weren’t included in the survey.
Exam Question 6
Jen is the data classification manager for a hospital system and is assigning data into categories. Which one of the following categories would be the most directly applicable to a patient’s medical record?
A. PII
B. Financial information
C. PHI
D. Government information
Correct Answer:
C. PHI
Answer Description:
It is possible that a medical record could contain any type of personal information and medical records do generally contain personally identifiable information (PII). However, the most directly applicable category is protected health information (PHI), because it is a far more specific category than general PII. When you take the CIPP/US exam, you may find yourself asked to choose from multiple answers that may seem correct. Be sure to read the question carefully and choose the best answer to the question.
Exam Question 7
Which one of the following statements about data flow diagrams is incorrect?
A. Data flow diagrams should always show details of the technical environment.
B. Data flow diagrams should show internal processes that handle sensitive information.
C. Data flow diagrams should map the sharing and transfer of information to third parties.
D. Data flow diagrams contribute to the ability of privacy professionals to manage the data lifecycle.
Correct Answer:
A. Data flow diagrams should always show details of the technical environment.
Answer Description:
Data flow diagrams do not necessarily need to include technical details of the environment. Although this is certainly an acceptable practice, it is not required, and some organizations choose to maintain high-level diagrams that are easier for laypeople to understand.
Exam Question 8
Which one of the following laws includes specific requirements for the destruction of information contained within consumer reports?
A. FACTA
B. HIPAA
C. GLBA
D. SOX
Correct Answer:
A. FACTA
Answer Description:
The Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act (FACTA) includes a Disposable Rule that requires that covered organizations take reasonable measures to protect against unauthorized access or use of consumer reports in connection with their disposal.
Exam Question 9
Which of the following statements about workforce privacy training is incorrect?
A. All employees should receive the same information during privacy training.
B. Privacy training should take place on a regular basis.
C. Training should include content on regulatory requirements.
D. Individuals completing training should understand their role in protecting privacy.
Correct Answer:
A. All employees should receive the same information during privacy training.
Answer Description:
Employees should receive information during trainings that is appropriate to their role in the organization. This may mean that different employees receive different content. Privacy training should take place on a regular basis and include content on regulatory requirements. Individuals completing training should understand their role in protecting privacy.
Exam Question 10
Which one of the following cybersecurity threats would likely have access to the most sophisticated attack tools?
A. Insider
B. Hacktivist
C. Script kiddie
D. APT
Correct Answer:
D. APT
Answer Description:
Advanced persistent threats (APTs) are well-sourced organizations with access to sophisticated attack tools. Other types of attackers are unlikely to have access to tools with the same degree of sophistication.